Module Final Exam

Take Assessment - Final Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1

Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router RT-5?
• 192.168.0.0/16
• 192.168.52.0/24
• 192.168.48.0/22
• 192.168.52.0/22
• 192.168.51.0/23
• 192.168.48.0/21

2

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for host A?
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access
SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

3 Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
• access
• backbone
• distribution
• core

4 A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
• The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?
• ABC(config)# router ospf 99
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 255.255.255.248 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 1
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 1
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0

6

Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?
• trunking
• STP
• VTP
• routing

7 Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)
• its use of the hop count metric
• its use of broadcast updates
• its use of split horizon as a stability feature
• the authentication of updates
• its exclusively classful routing
• its hop count maximum of 15

8 Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
• physical
• distribution
• data link
• access
• core

9 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
• The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
• A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
• The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
• RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10 Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

11

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
• The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
• The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
• The router is not configured for trunking.
• The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

12 What is added to a bridge CAM table as a frame passes through a switch?
• source IP address
• destination IP address
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address

13

Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• A gateway of last resort is required.
• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

15

Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?
• It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.
• It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
• It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
• It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.

16

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
• R2 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
• R4 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.
• R3 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.

17 What are two advantages provided by OSPF authentication? (Choose two.)
• It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
• It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.
• It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
• It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
• It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.

18

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F

19

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
• physical
• data link
• core
• access
• network
• distribution

20 A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
• add additional hubs
• replace hubs with switches
• replace hubs with access points
• add a router to every hub segment

21 Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
• requires a minimum of two wires
• reduces the number of collisions
• allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
• allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
• increases the number of broadcast domains

22 What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
• The switch has passed POST and is working properly
• The switch has failed POST.
• The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
• The switch is going through POST.
• The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.

23

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

24

Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to be elected as DR?
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
• REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1
• REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255

25 What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
• elect a designated switch
• use a router to locate a default gateway
• elect a root bridge
• determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

26 Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
• Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

27

Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch A should be the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. The switches are all set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network administrator change the root bridge to switch A?
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.

28 Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• They can support multiple routed protocols.
• They can support only link-state protocols.
• They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
• They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
• They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
• They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

29

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

30

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?
• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

31

Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?
• Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
• VTP has been enabled for all ports.
• ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.
• Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to exchange data between VLANs.

32

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
• highest Layer 2 address
• highest priority number
• highest path cost
• lowest Layer 2 address
• lowest priority number
• lowest path cost

33 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
• when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
• when a router has more than three active interfaces
• when a router has discontiguous networks attached
• when a router has less than five active interfaces

34

Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between RTR-2 and the two other routers?
• 198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30
• 198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30
• 198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30
• 198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30
• 198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30

35 Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward

36 What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
• Switches help eliminate collision domains.
• Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.
• Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.
• Switches decrease network throughput.
• Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.

37

Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 192.168.10.238/24?

• Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238
• Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Branch1(config-line)# telnet
• Branch1# telnet Central
• Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238

38

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast domains are there?
• one
• two
• three
• four
• five
• six

39

Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-2 to allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?
• as trunks
• as access ports
• as channels
• as inter-VLAN ports
• as bridge ports

40

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0

41

The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be done so that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
• Set the password on the management VLAN.
• Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.
• Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.
• Configure the hostname on SW_2.
• Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.

42 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
• by comparing known routes to information received in updates
• by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers
• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

43 What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)
• Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.
• Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.
• Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.
• Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.
• Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use more bandwidth than link-state protocols do.
• Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.

44

Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192

45

Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

46 The following command was added to a router configuration:

ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249

What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)

• It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next hop.
• All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this configuration command is in effect.
• The route will be marked with an "R" in the routing table.

Module9

Take Assessment - Module 9 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 A router has two serial interfaces and two FastEthernet interfaces. It needs to connect to a wide area link to the main office and to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient manner?
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to a router FastEthernet interface and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
• Two additional FastEthernet interfaces are required to interconnect the VLANs.
• Use serial to FastEthernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the router. Attach the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
• Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.

2

The switches in the diagram are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

3

Refer to the graphic. What are some advantages of replacing the individual VLAN links between Switch1 and Switch2 with a single trunk line? (Choose three.)
• It would free 2 switch ports on each switch.
• It would free 3 switch ports on each switch.
• It would save 2 cabling runs.
• It would save 3 cabling runs.
• It would provide three times the bandwidth of the individual links.
• It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports.

4

A switch is configured with the commands shown in the diagram. Host1 is connected to port 0/4 with an IP address of 192.168.1.22/28. Host2 is connected to port 0/5 with an IP address of 192.168.1.33/28. Host3 is connected to port 0/6 with an IP address of 192.168.1.30/28. Select the statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.)
• Host1 can ping Host2.
• Host1 cannot ping Host2.
• Host1 can ping Host3.
• Host1 cannot ping Host3.
• Host2 can ping Host3.
• Host2 cannot ping Host3.

5

A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

6 A switch in a VTP domain sends an advertisement request. What will be the response?
• A configuration status reply will be issued from the closest client switch.
• A three-way handshake will establish a configuration session with the VTP server.
• Summary and subset advertisements will be sent by the VTP server.
• The configuration version number will be set to zero and all switches in the domain will issue advertisements regarding the state of their VLANs.

7 Which devices can be connected to a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
• a switch
• a hub
• a router
• a server with a special NIC
• a CSU/DSU
• a repeater

8 What should be done before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

9 Which of the following must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

10 By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?
• the first VLAN defined
• the last VLAN defined
• all VLANs
• the lowest number VLAN

11

If trunking were not used in the network shown in the graphic, how many links would be required to carry the traffic for all the VLANs between the switches?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

12

Host A sends a frame to host B over the network shown in the graphic. Each link has been labeled with a letter. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
• C, E
• A, C, E
• C, E, F
• A, C, D, E
• A, B, C, D, E
• A, B, C, D, E, F, G

13

Which statements describe the network design shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• This design will not scale easily.
• This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
• Devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
• This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
• This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
• The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

14 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

15

The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate?
• No VTP domain has been configured.
• A router is needed to forward traffic between the VLANs.
• The switch does not have an entry in its CAM table for Host2.
• The host IP configurations are on different networks.
• The ports on each VLAN must be grouped together on the switch.

16

Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the graphic. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

17 What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

18 What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a switched trunk?
• the destination MAC address
• the switch MAC address
• the VLAN ID
• the BID

19 Which of the following statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches send out updates informing other switches about changes in the status of their VLANs.

20 Select the items that describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

21

A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Router RA is attached to the VTP trunk and configured as shown in the output contained in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.1 /26
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28

22 How do devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)
• Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.
• Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Devices on different VLANs communicate over a trunk link between switches.
• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.
• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.

Module8

Take Assessment - Module 8 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?
• membership by MAC address
• membership by logical address
• membership by protocol
• membership by port
• membership by operating system

2 What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)
• CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
• VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.

3 How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)
• If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.
• If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.
• If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct interface.
• A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.
• If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the broadcast domain, except for the source port.
• If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not forward the frame.

4 What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)
• Enter database configuration mode.
• Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
• Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
• Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
• Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
• Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.

5 A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link. A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)
• The router IOS does not support trunking.
• The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.
• The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.
• The router and switch are running different versions of STP.
• The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.

6 If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many bridging tables will the switch maintain?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 12
• 36

7 A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?
• dynamic
• database
• multiple
• port-based

8 A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10 to VLAN3? (Choose three.)
• Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10
• Switch_1# vlan database

9 How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)
• by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area
• by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of physical location
• by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing organization
• by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network
• by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks
• by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3 devices

10 Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs
• 80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.
• 80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.
• 80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.
• 80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at the distribution layer.
• 80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.

11 Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)
• the physical addressing scheme
• traffic patterns in the network
• types of applications in use
• the adaptability of the network
• workgroup functions and commonality
• the tagging option used for VLAN identification

12 A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to correct this problem?
• The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.
• The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.
• The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.
• The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.

13 Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate? (Choose three.)
• Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.
• VLAN port membership frequently changes.
• Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.
• The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.
• VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.

14 VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in order to accomplish this task?
• Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10

15

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?
• The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.
• The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.
• The message will only be seen by router interface e0. •

16 If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many broadcast domains does it have?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 12

17 Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show vlan id id_number
• Switch# show vlan
• Switch# show config vlan id_number
• Switch# show vlan config id_number
• Switch# show interface vlan id_number

18 Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3
• Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9
• Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9

19 What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?
• The switch will discard the frame.
• The switch will request the sender resend the frame.
• The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

20 What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)
• The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.
• The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.
• The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.
• The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.

21 Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.
• Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.
• It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.
• Storm control is enabled by default.
• VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.

22 Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)
• logical addresses
• physical addresses
• ISL addresses
• switch port attachment
• hardware platform
• traffic pattern

23 Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?
• 1
• 4
• 12
• 48

24 What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• They become inactive.
• They default back to the management VLAN.
• They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
• They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

Module7

Take Assessment - Module 7 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

2 Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?
• Spanning Tree
• Shortest Path First
• Dykstra
• Rapid Tree
• Bellman-Ford

3 What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?
• A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
• A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
• There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
• Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
• Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

4

Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
• a broadcast storm
• multicast errors
• ARP table errors
• MAC address instability
• redundant unicast frame forwarding

5 Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
• blocking
• learning
• converging
• listening
• switching

6 How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
• every second
• every two seconds
• every three seconds
• every four seconds

7 What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
• User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
• The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
• All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
• A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
• User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

8 How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
• Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

9 What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
• the max-age timer
• the listening forward delay
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the learning forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

10 How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
• It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
• It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
• It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
• It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
• It is dropped and not sent to any address.

11 Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
• in 15 seconds
• never
• immediately
• in 30 seconds
• after 90 seconds

12 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

13 What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

14 What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
• Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
• The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
• Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
• Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

15 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

16 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

17 Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

18 What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

19

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
• Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
• All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
• Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
• Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
• A broadcast storm will occur.

20 How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

21

Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

22 Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
• broadcast storms
• corrupted ARP tables
• duplicate MAC addresses
• inaccurate routing tables
• multiple copies of Ethernet frames
• MAC address table instability

23 How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

Module6

Take Assessment - Module 6 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
• Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
• Switch# copy running-config tftp
• Switch# copy flash tftp
• Switch# copy IOS tftp
• Switch# copy tftp flash
• Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

2 Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)
• Ctrl+z
• disable
• end
• exit
• logout

3 An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command
• Switch# c?
• Switch# c ?
• Switch# configure?
• Switch# configure ?

4 Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
• User Command
• User Config
• User EXEC
• User Privileged
• Privileged EXEC

5 What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
• Rename the Flash file.
• Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
• Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
• Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
• Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

6 Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
• HTTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• TTY
• IOS

7 A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
• The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
• The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
• All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
• Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
• All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
• All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

8 A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
• delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
• deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
• remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
• delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
• configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9 Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
• The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
• The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
• The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
• Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
• The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

10 Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
• a crossover cable
• a patch cable
• a rollover cable
• a straight-thru cable

11 From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
• config
• user EXEC
• privileged EXEC
• command EXEC
• flash

12 An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950, is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show port security
• Switch# show version
• Switch# show startup-config
• Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
• Switch# reload
• Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

13 Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
• copy a configuration from a FTP server
• type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
• enter the System Configuration dialog
• Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
• connect to the switch using a web browser

14 How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
• 30 seconds
• 180 seconds
• 300 seconds
• 30 minutes

15 What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
• RPS
• bootstrap
• power-on self test
• system STAT
• pre-boot

16 After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
• The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
• The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
• The POST has failed.
• The boot sequence is in process.
• A fatal error has occurred.
• The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

17 When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
• e
• *
• !
• s
• #

18 What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
• amber
• green
• red
• white
• off

19 How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
• Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
• Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
• Unused ports can be shutdown.
• Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
• Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
• Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.

20 Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
• flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
• running-config
• VLAN.bin
• startup-config
• c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
• VLAN.dat

Module5

Take Assessment - Module 5 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

2 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone
• access
• distribution
• network
• core
• workgroup
• WAN

3 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
• replacing hubs with switches
• segmenting the network by installing a router
• creating VLANs for each workgroup
• adding additional hubs to the local area network
• replacing routers with LAN switches
• adding bridges to connect different workgroups

4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?
• IDF
• MDF
• HCC
• VCC
• POP

5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
• VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
• The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
• A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
• An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
• Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
• patch cables of variable lengths
• horizontal cross-connect cabling
• vertical cross-connect cabling
• parallel cross-connect cabling

7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
• throughput
• response time
• workstation speed
• access to resources
• desktop applications

8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
• adaptability
• manageability
• operability
• scalability
• stability

9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
• Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
• Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
• access
• data link
• network
• internet
• transport

11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
• sustainability
• reliability
• manageability
• adaptability
• functionality
• scalability

12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• redundant paths
• high-level policy enforcement
• packet manipulation
• media transitions
• rapid forwarding of traffic
• no packet filtering

13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
• inter-VLAN routing
• Layer 2 filtering
• Layer 3 filtering
• microsegmentation
• bandwidth security

14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
• FDDI
• Ethernet
• Wireless
• Token Ring

15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
• one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
• multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
• multi-port gigabit switches
• switches running VLANs
• managed smart hubs

16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• bridges
• switches
• routers

17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
• functionality
• sustainability
• adaptability
• manageability
• scalability

18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 4
• Layer 7

19 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

20 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
• filtering of core switching errors
• preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
• preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
• maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
• isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks

Module4

Take Assessment - Module 4 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
• Frames are processed through a single queue.
• All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
• Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
• A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
• Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
• improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
• segmenting broadcast domains
• forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
• segmenting collision domains
• forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
• developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
• preventing broadcasts
• increasing available bandwidth per user
• decreasing the size of collision domains
• isolating traffic among segments
• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains

4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
• Switching occurs in software.
• Switching occurs in hardware.
• Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
• Switches segment LANs.

5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
• to create fewer collision domains
• to enhance user bandwidth
• to create more broadcast domains
• to eliminate virtual circuits
• to isolate traffic between segments
• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

6

Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
• bits
• frames
• packets
• datagrams

8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
• Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
• They create separate collision domains.
• Signals are distributed through all ports.
• Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
• They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
• Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
• hub
• server
• switch
• transceiver

10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 11:11:11:11
• FF:FF:FF:FF
• FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

11

Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
• cut-through
• adaptive fast-forward
• fragment-free
• adaptive cut-through

13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
• cut-through
• fragment-free
• fast-forward
• store-and-forward

14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
• ROM
• CAM
• Flash
• SIMM
• NRAM

15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
• They increase the number of collision domains.
• They decrease the number of collision domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains.
• They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
• They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
• source IP addresses
• destination IP addresses
• destination MAC addresses
• source MAC addresses

17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
• It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
• It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
• It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
• It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
• It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
• It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

18 What does switch latency describe?
• forwarding method used by a switch
• time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
• improvement in network performance from using a switch
• time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
• increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
• If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.
• If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.

20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• Layer 4-7 protocol address

Module3

Take Assessment - Module 3 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
• DUAL
• IP
• PDM
• RTP
• TCP
• UDP

2 Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
• Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
• The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
• Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

3 What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
• backup route
• default route
• feasible successor route
• gateway
• secondary route
• successor route

4 Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
• A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
• The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.
• Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
• The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
• Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5 If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
• recomputed
• passive
• active
• down
• unreachable
• successor

6 What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
• adjacency table
• topology table
• neighbor table
• routing table
• link state table
• ARP table

7 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

8 Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
• routes installed by DUAL
• lowest calculated metric to each destination
• network layer address of the neighbor routers
• number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
• feasible distance to each neighbor

9 Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
• show
• list
• debug
• terminal monitor

10 Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
• show ip eigrp interfaces detail
• show ip eigrp traffic
• show ip eigrp neighbors
• show ip eigrp topology all-links

11 What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
• 70
• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120
• 255

12 What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
• New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
• A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
• A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
• Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
• Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

14 Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
• router# show ospf neighbor
• router# debug neighbor events
• router# debug ip ospf neighbor
• router# show ip ospf neighbor

15 Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip route eigrp
• Router# show eigrp route
• Router# show eigrp protocol

16

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

17 What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

Module2

Take Assessment - Module 2 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth
• bandwidth and hop count
• bandwidth and reliability
• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
• border router
• nearest neighboring router
• local router
• trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
• point-to-point
• point-to-multipoint
• broadcast multiaccess
• nonbroadcast multiaccess

5

What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

6

Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
• link-state age intervals
• timer intervals
• router ID number
• link-state update intervals
• neighbor adjacencies

9

RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
• reduction of routing overhead
• increased routing overhead
• faster convergence
• slower convergence
• distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
• isolation of network instability to one area of the network

11

Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0

12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
• Link-state protocols require careful network design.
• Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
• Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
• Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
• Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
• Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
• Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
• It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
• It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
• The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
• It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
• It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

17

The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
• R1 will be the DR
• R1 will be the BDR
• R2 will be the DR
• R2 will be the BDR
• R3 will be the DR
• R3 will be the BDR

18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
• router# show ospf serial 0
• router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
• router# show ip interface serial 0
• router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• root router
• backup root router
• domain router
• backup domain router
• designated router
• backup designated router